Those who use instrumental music in worship think it is simple to justify it. If it is as easy to justify as some think, then it ought not to be difficult to answer these questions. I will first state the argument that is used to justify instrumental music and then ask questions based on the argument.
The most usual argument that is made for its use is to appeal to the Old Testament. Those who use it will say, “I can find it in the Old Testament.” If the Old Testament justifies its use in Christian worship, will you answer these questions?
When you appeal to the Old Testament to justify its use, is that not an admission that the New Testament does not authorize its use? If it is authorized in the New Testament, then why appeal to the Old Testament to try to justify it?
If it was right in the Old Testament, was it not right because it was mentioned in the Old
Testament? Would you try to prove it right by the Old Testament if it was not mentioned in the Old Testament?
If it had to be mentioned in the Old Testament to make it right, would it not follow that it
must be mentioned in the New Testament to justify its use today since we live under the New
Testament (Col. 2:14)? Where is it mentioned in the New Testament as being in Christian
To appeal to the Old Testament is an admission that for it to be right there, it had to be
mentioned. Does not this argument cancel the argument made by saying, “Where does the New
Testament say we cannot use it?”
If the Old Testament is authority for mechanical instruments of music, then why is it not
authority for other things as well? When it was authority for instrumental music, was it not also
authority for burning incense, animal sacrifice, Sabbath keeping and stoning those who broke
the Sabbath? When and how did it cease to be authority for burning incense, animal sacrifice,
Sabbath keeping and stoning Sabbath breakers, but continue to be authority for instrumental
There are some who contend that instrumental music was prophesied in the Old Testament,
in such passages as Psalms 87:5-7. Those who use this passage to justify it think that Zion or
Jerusalem is the church. If Zion or Jerusalem is the church, what does Tyre, Babylon, Philistia
and Ethiopia mean?
If this is a prophecy of the New Testament church, why did not some inspired men quote
it in the New Testament? If this is a prophecy of the church, how do you account for the fact that
though there are many quotations in the New Testament from the Old Testament, not one of
them mentions instrumental music in Christians. worship?
How would you account for the fact when the New Testament does quote from the book of
Psalms, the quotations are in connection with singing and not playing mechanical instruments?
In Romans 15:9, Paul quotes Psalms 22:22. If instrumental music was prophesied from the
Psalms, why did Paul quote two of the Psalms about singing but none about instrumental music?
If instrumental music was prophesied, how can you account for the fact that the prophecy
was not fulfilled? It is a certain fact that the early church did not use instrumental music.
If it was prophesied, then it is the only prophesy that I know of that failed.
In Deuteronomy 18:22, God says that when a prophet prophesies a thing and it does not
come to pass, you may know that the prophet is a false prophet. Would it not follow that if the
Psalms prophesied instrumental music, since it did not come to pass, the prophet was a false
Franklin Camp (1915 – 1991)
“God loves you and I love you and that’s the way it’s gonna be!” – Mike